CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers v5.0 2015 (100%)

1. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

   • the 32-bit router ID
   • the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
   • the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
   • the interface IPv6 link-local address

2. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

   • The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
   • The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
   • The packets are sent as unicast.
   • The packets require confirmation.
   • The packets are unreliable.

3. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

   • only when necessary
   • when learned routes age out
   • every 5 seconds via multicast
   • every 30 seconds via broadcast

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

   • There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.
   • The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
   • The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
   • The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
   • Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​

   • 10.0.0.0/8
   • 10.1.0.0/16
   • 10.1.0.0/28
   • 10.1.1.0/24 10.1.2.0/24 10.1.3.0/24 10.1.4.0/28​

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

   • This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
   • This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
   • This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
   • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

   • There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.
   • The OSPF routing process is inactive.
   • The link to the new area is down.
   • The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.

8. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

   • when the router has interfaces in different areas
   • when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
   • when the router has the highest router ID
   • when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

9. What is a difference between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions?

   • The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
   • The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.
   • Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
   • IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.

10. A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

    • The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
    • The features in the Security package are available immediately.
    • The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
    • The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.

11. A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?

    • This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.
    • The MAC address table is full.
    • The VLAN database is corrupt.
    • The inbound interface is set for half duplex.

12. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

    • Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
    • Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

13. An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

    • A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
    • Spanning tree should be disabled ​for that STP instance until the problem is located.
    • Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
    • Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.

14. A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

    • FHRP
    • GLBP
    • HSRP
    • VRRP

15. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

    • SW1: on SW2: on
    • SW1: desirable SW2: desirable
    • SW1: auto SW2: auto trunking enabled on both switches
    • SW1: auto SW2: auto PortFast enabled on both switches
    • SW1: passive SW2: active

16. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

    • The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
    • All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.
    • All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.
    • All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
    • Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

17. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

    • when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
    • when a router has more than three active interfaces
    • when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
    • when a router has less than five active interfaces
    • when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

18. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

    • Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.
    • At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
    • The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.
    • The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
    • The APs must use different cluster names.

19. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

    • The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
    • Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
    • The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.
    • The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

20. What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

    • WEP
    • WPA Personal
    • WPA2 Personal
    • WPA2 Enterprise

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)

    • R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.
    • The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
    • Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
    • R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.
    • The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).

22. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

    • Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
    • Add another access point.
    • Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
    • Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.

23. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

    • sending an ARP request
    • delivering a broadcast frame
    • transmitting a probe request
    • initiating a three-way handshake
    • receiving a broadcast beacon frame

24. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

    • when the EIGRP domain is converged
    • when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
    • when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
    • when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available

25. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

    • ad hoc mode
    • hotspot
    • infrastructure mode
    • mixed mode

26. What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can implement MIMO?

    • BSS
    • DSSS
    • FHSS
    • OFDM

27. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

    • The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
    • R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
    • The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
    • If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

28. A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:

    1.that all interfaces have correct addressing

    2.that the routing process has been globally configured

    3.that correct router adjacencies have formed

    What additional action taken on ​R3 could solve the problem?

    • Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.
    • Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
    • Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
    • Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

29. A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which security credential is needed for the authentication process?

    • a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
    • the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
    • the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password
    • a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain

30. For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

    • any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
    • any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive
    • the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers
    • any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process
    • networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol
    • the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.

32. A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

    • ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE
    • area 1 authentication message-digest
    • username OSPF password 1C34dE
    • enable password 1C34dE
    • area 0 authentication message-digest

33. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

    • root port
    • non-designated port
    • designated port
    • disabled port

34. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

    • dir flash:
    • ping 10.10.10.1
    • copy tftp: flash0:
    • ping 10.10.10.2

35. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

    • 4096
    • 32768
    • 61440
    • 65535

36. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

    • ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
    • Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.
    • ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.
    • Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.
    • Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.
    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
    • S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

    • The EtherChannel is down.
    • The port channel ID is 2.
    • The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
    • The bundle is fully operational.
    • The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)

    • The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
    • Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.
    • Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.
    • The channel group is inconsistent.
    • The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.

40. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

    • Multilink PPP
    • DTP
    • LACP
    • PAgP

41. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

    • The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
    • The EtherChannel will remain functional.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

    • The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
    • The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
    • The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.
    • The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.

43. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

44. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

    • R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
    • The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
    • R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

45. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

    • MAC address of the forwarding router
    • MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
    • MAC address of the standby router
    • MAC address of the virtual router

46. If a company wants to upgrade a Cisco 2800 router from IOS 12.4T, what IOS should be recommended for a stable router platform?

    • 12.5T
    • 13.1T
    • 14.0
    • 15.1M

47. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

    • It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
    • It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
    • It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
    • It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

48. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

    • to provide increased network security
    • to shut down unused interfaces
    • to avoid unnecessary update traffic
    • to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces
    • to exclude interfaces from load balancing

49. Fill in the blank.

    EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the topology table.

50. Fill in the blank.

    The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

51. Fill in the blank. Use the acronym. Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique?​ AES

52. Match each OSPF LSA description with its type. (Not all options are used.)

53. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)

54. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

    • ability to build a routing table
    • ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
    • ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
    • ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

55. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

    • A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
    • The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
    • This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
    • This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single
    • network device.

56. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

    • immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
    • continually purchase backup equipment for the network
    • implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
    • add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

57. Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?

    • the number of layers of the hierarchical network
    • the number of users on the access layer
    • the role of the malfunctioning device
    • the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer

58. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

    • broadcast traffic containment
    • failover capability
    • forwarding rate
    • port density
    • Power over Ethernet
    • speed of convergence

59. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

    • HTTP access to the device
    • a terminal emulation client
    • Telnet or SSH access to the device
    • a direct connection to the console or AUX port
    • a connection to an operational network interface on the device

60. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

    • connect remote networks
    • provide Power over Ethernet to devices
    • connect users to the network
    • provide data traffic security
    • provide a high-speed network backbone

Updated 05 April 2015

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 001
   • S1
   • S2
   • S3
   • S4

2. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 002
   • alternate, root, designated, root
   • designated, root, alternate, root
   • alternate, designated, root, root
   • designated, alternate, root, root

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 003
   • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.
   • S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.
   • S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.
   • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

4. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

   • GLBP allows load balancing between routers.
   • It is nonproprietary.
   • It uses a virtual router master.
   • It works together with VRRP.

5. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

   • HSRP uses active and standby routers.
   • It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
   • It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
   • HSRP is nonproprietary.

6. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

   • spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links
   • dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
   • enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
   • creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

7. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

   • on
   • desirable
   • active
   • auto
   • passive

8. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

   • network
   • open
   • passive
   • shared-key

9. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

   • WPA
   • WEP
   • WPA2 with TKIP
   • WPA2 with AES

10. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

    • Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
    • Change the authentication method on the AP.
    • Switch to an 802.11g AP.
    • Set the AP to mixed mode.

11. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)

    • Use only OSPFv3.
    • Use MD5 authentication.
    • Use the enable secret command.
    • When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
    • Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-user devices.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 004
    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.

13. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

    • type 1
    • type 2
    • type 3
    • type 4
    • type 5

14. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?

    • as the autonomous system number
    • as the number of neighbors supported by this router
    • as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
    • as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router

15. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

    • show ip protocols
    • show running-config
    • show interfaces
    • show ip route

16. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

    • delay
    • MTU
    • reliability
    • transmit and receive load
    • bandwidth

17. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?

    • 2
    • 4
    • 16
    • 32

18. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

    • on a per-packet basis
    • on a per-interface basis
    • on a per-path-load basis
    • on a per-destination basis

19. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 005
    • The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
    • The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.
    • The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.
    • The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 006
    • R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.​
    • The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.
    • The link-local address must be the same on both routers.
    • The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.​
    • The router ID must be the same on both routers.

21. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

    • Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
    • Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
    • Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
    • Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
    • Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

22. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

    • The FTP server is operational.
    • The old IOS image file has been deleted.
    • There is sufficient space in flash memory.
    • The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

23. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

    • IPBase
    • DATA
    • Unified Communications
    • Security

24. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

    • License Type: ipbasek9
    • License Type: Permanent
    • License Type: Temporary
    • License State: Active, In Use
    • License State: Active, Registered
    • License State: On

25. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 007
    

    CCNA3 Final Exam 0001